alpachinao Posted December 22, 2014 Report Posted December 22, 2014 How to understand the ratio given their
micxas Posted December 22, 2014 Report Posted December 22, 2014 Question-- when there was no actual way to appraise the value of currency how come they compare two countries currency and GDP? in 18th and 19th centuries.. Doesn't look real, there was no way to calculate GDP india because it was ruled by multiple kings whom never cooperated with each other and also England started growing after Industrial revolution?
donganaaK Posted December 22, 2014 Author Report Posted December 22, 2014 Question-- when there was no actual way to appraise the value of currency how come they compare two countries currency and GDP? in 18th and 19th centuries.. Doesn't look real, there was no way to calculate GDP india because it was ruled by multiple kings whom never cooperated with each other and also England started growing after Industrial revolution? i guess GDP is calculated by the value of total amount of goods manufactured in a year .. not by currency value .... yeah end of the its tough to calculate these figures ,....
micxas Posted December 22, 2014 Report Posted December 22, 2014 i guess GDP is calculated by the value of total amount of goods manufactured in a year .. not by currency value .... yeah end of the its tough to calculate these figures ,.... Yeah but its abt the income generated n expenditure...economy economy ante money ee kada, money ante currency now there is a way to compare UK pound to IND rupee, like 1 pound= x rupees, but back in 18th century etla compare chestam two economies and two currencies? there was no offcial way right? so that graph must be made by some :police: .
ravula Posted December 22, 2014 Report Posted December 22, 2014 motham anni continents nundi dobbindru kada so anthe untadi valla GDP
thedarkknight Posted December 22, 2014 Report Posted December 22, 2014 indis GDP would be higer than uks in 1700s i guess
athletics Posted December 22, 2014 Report Posted December 22, 2014 The thing is whoever had the technogoly ruled the world and true to date.. No wonder britan had guns then and they ruled more than half the world
donganaaK Posted December 22, 2014 Author Report Posted December 22, 2014 Yeah but its abt the income generated n expenditure...economy economy ante money ee kada, money ante currency now there is a way to compare UK pound to IND rupee, like 1 pound= x rupees, but back in 18th century etla compare chestam two economies and two currencies? there was no offcial way right? so that graph must be made by some :police: . I guess there is a way to estimate these figures , if u do a quick search u can see a ton of these estimates ..... I'm not exactly sure how it's done though http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_regions_by_past_GDP_%28PPP%29_per_capita
micxas Posted December 22, 2014 Report Posted December 22, 2014 I guess there is a way to estimate these figures , if u do a quick search u can see a ton of these estimates ..... I'm not exactly sure how it's done thoughhttp://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_regions_by_past_GDP_%28PPP%29_per_capita thanks, will check..
micxas Posted December 22, 2014 Report Posted December 22, 2014 The following estimates were made by the economic historian Paul Bairoch (*,):?
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